Showing posts with label set theory. Show all posts
Showing posts with label set theory. Show all posts

Wednesday, June 10, 2009

Sets and Truth

In this post, I will explain a way to create a theory of sets, given a theory of truth. These two foundational issues are typically treated as separate matters, so asking for a particular relationship to hold between a theory of truth and a set theory adds some interesting constraints to the situation.

(Part of this post is an edited version of an email I sent originally to Randall Holmes.)

Claim: A set is essentially a sentence with a hole in it. Set membership is characterized by the truth/falsehood of the sentences when we fill the holes.

The major justification for this way of understanding sets is the way we use the comprehension principle to talk about sets. The comprehension principle is what allows us to say, in a set theory, that if we can describe the membership requirements for a set then that set exists. For example, I can describe the requirement "it must be a prime number that is over 5 digits long", so the set of prime numbers over five digits long exists. (The comprehension principle with no restrictions leads to naive set theory, however, which is paradoxical.)

This view is not far from the way Frege explained sets, as I understand it. However, he distinguished the set as the extension of the sentence-with-hole; meaning, the things for which it is true.

So, suppose we've got a logic with enough machinery to represent computable functions, and furthermore we've got a description of the language in itself (ie, Godel-numbering-or-something-equivalent). Furthermore, we've got some theory of truth. Then, via the claim, we can already talk about sets, even though they haven't been purposefully introduced. In particular, "x is an element of y" is
interpreted as:

"When "x" is used to fill in the partial sentence Y, the result is true"

where "x" is the name of the term x (Godel-numbering-or-equivalent, again, for those who are familiar with such things), and Y is the sentence-with-hole corresponding to the set y.

The truth predicate is needed here in order to assert the result of the substitution. With the naive theory of truth, it is always meaningful to apply the truth predicate to a sentence. So, the naive theory of truth gives us the naive theory of sets, in which set-membership is meaningful for any set we can describe. Of course, this is inconsistent under classical logic.

So, what I'm saying is: if the claim is accepted, then the set theory is pinned down completely by the theory of truth. The naive theory of truth gives us the naive theory of sets. A tarski-hierarchy theory of truth gives us something vaguely resembling type theory. Kripke's theory of truth gives us a theory in which all sets exist, but not all membership evaluations are meaningful. In particular, Russel's set "all sets that do not contain themselves" exists. We can meaningfully say that any set of integers is in Russel's set, and that the set of all sets (which exists) is not. The paradoxical situation, in which we ask if Russel's set is a member of itself, is simply meaningless.

So good so far. But, there is the issue of extensionality to deal with. The axiom of extensionality is taken as a very basic fact of set theory, one that not even nonstandard set theories consider rejecting. Given the above discussion, however, the axiom of extentionality would be false. Two different sentences-with-holes can be logically equivalent, and so have the same extension. For example, "_ is an even prime number" and "_ added to itself equals 4" are the same set, but they are different sentences.

My solution here is to interpret the notion of set-equality as being a notion of logical equivalence between sentences-with-holes, rather than one of syntactic equivalence. In other words, "x=y" for two sets x and y needs to be interpreted as saying that X and Y mutually imply each other given any slot-filler, rather than just as saying X=Y. But this is doable within the language, since all we need to do is quantify over the slot-filler-names.

This can be thought of as my way of interpreting Frege's concept of the "extension" of a sentence-with-hole. Rather than being a seperate entity, the extension is a "view" of the sentence: the sentence up-to-equivalence.

Sunday, October 05, 2008

Finite Sets Prove Mathematical Induction Correct

In this post, I asked two questions:

1. Where does our knowledge about nonhalting programs come from?

2. What grounds the mathematical concept of "set"?

One thing I didn't mention is that an answer to the second question would probably provide an answer to the first. This is because practically all of our knowledge about nonhalting programs can be proven in axiomatic set theory, and it is (somewhat) reasonable to assume that a "perfect" set theory (one that really did capture everything worth capturing about the human intuition of sets) would capture all of it.

Now, I should reserve myself a bit: explaining where the grounding comes from does not necessarily explain where the knowledge comes from, as illustrated with my logic that (in my opinion) has a grounded notion of "programs" and "computation", but which does not necessarily have any additional knowledge to accompany that grounding. But this is beside my point, which is...

Finite sets prove mathematical induction correct!

I mentioned in that post that most (if not all) knowledge about halting can be provided by the proof method called mathematical induction (no relation to the use of "induction" meaning "learning"). It is not difficult to prove the correctness of mathematical induction from set theory; but, I did not consider this route before, because full set theory is harder to justify then induction. However, I came across a paper by George Boolos called "The Justification of Mathematical Induction" which shows how this can, after all, be a useful approach.

The paper justifies mathematical induction from only an extremely minimal set theory, plus the transitivity of less-than (if a is less then b and b is less than c, a is less then c). The set-theoretic fact needed is approximately this:

Pick any number, n, and formula, F. There exists a set X at level n, containing all and only the those things existing at lower levels and satisfying F.

This is an axiom schema, because we can fill in any formula F to get a specific statement. (First-order logic does not actually have a way of saying "for all formulas".) It establishes levels of existence, one for each natural number. It is "extremely weak" because without more principles, it only requires the existence of each possible finite set! There is no grounding problem, because each set that is forced to exist can be explicitly manipulated. (Note: the principle does not rule out the existence of more complicated sets.) I think this is quite satisfying.

On the other hand, I don't have a good feel for where the extra knowledge "comes from"... I can read through the proof, but it is surprising that merely adding the ability to collect entities together into sets gives us so much power to prove important truths! It is dangerous, too. Dropping the notion of levels gives this schema:

Pick any formula F. There exists a set X, containing all and only the those things satisfying F.

This is the naive set comprehension, which (as is well known) leads to a contradiction known as Russel's paradox. Russel's paradox cannot be derived from the version I gave that is restricted to levels. however, perhaps Russel's paradox can still serve as a lesson that, more often than not, an axiom schema will yield unexpected results.

Remaining Questions:

How can talk of larger infinities be grounded, and how can their mathematical existence be proved? How can the way human mathematicians talk about them be justified? Or, is it all actually nonsense? How much of human mathematical knowledge does an AI need to be given before it can learn the rest? (Remember, all facts about halting are in principle learnable; the reason I'm worried about proving some of them is that humans seem to be able to. Also, humans seem capable of coming to know facts about convergence of processes, which are not in principle learnable or provable, unless we really can prove facts about halting.)